Like the topic says, I'm having a complete brain fart....I don't mess with stereos enough anymore to stay current on all this.

I've got a 2ohm DVC sub, and an amp that is rated at 500 watts RMS x 2 @ 2ohm stereo.

If my memory serves me right, I can wire the negative of one voice coil to the positve of the opposite. Then send the unused positve and negative leads to the amplifier. This in effect combines the VC's and on a 2ohm DVC, this results in a 4ohm load, yes?

Then, If I'm not mistaken, I can bridge the said amp and hook it up to the sub. Won't this result in 1,000 RMS to the sub?

Or am I flawed somewhere along the line? TIA.

 

Yes, on the wiring of the sub. That will yield a 4ohm load. But you need to check at what ohms the amp will throw out 1000 RMS when bridged.

 

all the info I have is 1,000 RMS x 1 bridged and 500w x 2@2ohm stereo....2ohm stereo being the lowest it is stable to.

So I assume the 1,000 RMS comes at a 4ohm load. If the amp is only stable to a 2ohm stereo load and that's 500 on each channel, the 1,000 rms would would come in at a 4ohm bridged load, correct?

Regardless of the power numbers, I'm more concerned with whether or not the amp will handle it.

2ohm stereo is the same as a 4ohm bridged load, isn't it? In which case the amp should be able to handle it...correct?

Thanks for the help.

 

you got it right

 

Thank you, sir.