I bought my r6 without a title so when I went to register it a lien poped up at the DMV. I'm the 3rd owner of the bike and it was the 1st owner who took the loan. The 1st owner said he paid it off, he got the title and sold it to the 2nd owner. The 2nd owner registered it but when he sold it to me he lost the title. He was able to register it under his name becasue he had the title at the time. So the DMV is telling me to talk to the loan company and have them sign off the loan. When I call the loan company they tell me to get a letter from the 1st owner telling them he sold it to the 2nd owner and the 2nd owner sold it to me. The only problem is the 1st owner keeps hanging up on me everytime I call. Now I can't register my bike because he's being a dick. Does anyone have a clue or know someone who can clear something like this. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

 

get a mechaincs lien

 

What's a mechanics lein? How does it work?

 

google.com

 

ah hell, what a mechanics lien is... is the way a mechanical shop can take possession of your vehicle legally when you opt to not pay them. they apply for a lien against your car/motorcycle, and eventually after posting said lien in there business window for 30 days the vehicle legally becomes the shops and they can do with it what they want to recoup loses. some say... Shhhhhhh! that this can be used to reg gray market... Shhhhh!

 

Dammit man, that's supposed to be our little secret

 

Hmm...wouldn't an older prior lien still take precedent?

 

How did the second owner register it without a lien if it still had the lien on it?

Sounds to me like the second owner never got the title because the first owner didn't pay of the loan and is just lying to you.

 

The 2nd owner was able to register it under his name. He would have ran into the same problems as I did if he didn't have the title. He probably never cleared up the lien and just registered it with the title. But as for the mechanics lien, since I work at a shop anyways, I can just say that it is a customer's motorcycle and post up a lien on it. Then after 30 days noone claims the motorcycle I can regster it under my name?

 

<TABLE WIDTH="90%" CELLSPACING=0 CELLPADDING=0 ALIGN=CENTER><TR><TD>Quote, originally posted by Type-X &raquo;</TD></TR><TR><TD CLASS="quote">The 2nd owner was able to register it under his name. He would have ran into the same problems as I did if he didn't have the title. He probably never cleared up the lien and just registered it with the title. </TD></TR></TABLE>

That doesn't make any sense at all... how could the 2nd owner register it without titling it in his name?

As said above, I think you're being lied to.

 

<TABLE WIDTH="90%" CELLSPACING=0 CELLPADDING=0 ALIGN=CENTER><TR><TD>Quote, originally posted by ASteele2 &raquo;</TD></TR><TR><TD CLASS="quote">

That doesn't make any sense at all... how could the 2nd owner register it without titling it in his name?

As said above, I think you're being lied to.</TD></TR></TABLE>

not only that, I think you got screwed over too

 

The 2nd owner said he lost the title. But when I went to register it, the papers the dmv printed out said the 2nd owner was the regstered owner. So how could he register it without the title? I got screwed badly either way, it's a lesson well learned. So anyone with any ideas of how to register my motorcycle please post up.

 

How did the second owner register it if the DMV thinks the first owner still has a lien?

 

<TABLE WIDTH="90%" CELLSPACING=0 CELLPADDING=0 ALIGN=CENTER><TR><TD>Quote, originally posted by Type-X &raquo;</TD></TR><TR><TD CLASS="quote">I bought my r6 without a title so when I went to register it a lien poped up at the DMV. I'm the 3rd owner of the bike and it was the 1st owner who took the loan. The 1st owner said he paid it off, he got the title and sold it to the 2nd owner. </TD></TR></TABLE>

If the title was actually transferred to the second owner, EVER, then the DMV would have a record of it belonging to him whether or not he still has the piece of paper. Unless the second owner bought the bike with a used bike loan then the first owner never paid the loan off. In that case, you got super shafted.

 

If you work at a shop then the mechanics lein is the best way to go.

 

So he or the shop would be the registered owner but the bike would still have a lien, much like the 2nd owner? If so, that sounds like what that guy did and ran a scam.

 

So even with a mechanics lien, I would still have to pay for the loan if it wasn't paid off? Who's done a mechanics lien before can you please give me more insight.